I've been reading through past posts - and maybe I've missed some - there seems to be no clear explanation for why after 401K/403b contributions, attending physicians should invest in a Roth (via the backdoor Roth method).
It's a major point in the White Coat Investor: convert a TIRA to a RIRA. But why? What's the advantage?
Please, someone, clarify this. I'm sure others are confused about this.
Thank you.
It's a major point in the White Coat Investor: convert a TIRA to a RIRA. But why? What's the advantage?
Please, someone, clarify this. I'm sure others are confused about this.
Thank you.
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